Rajasthan Staff Nurse Question Paper Solved 2025

Rajasthan Staff Nurse Question Paper Solved 2025

Get Rajasthan Staff Nurse Question Paper Solved 2025 with detailed answers and explanations. Practice MCQs and boost your RSMSSB nursing exam preparation.

1. Match the following services with its departments:

Column A	Column B
a. General administration	1. Financial, Material
b. Supportive services	2. Laboratories, Pharmacy
c. Medical and Nursing services	3. Emergency, Operation Theatres
d. Utility services	4. Housekeeping, Dietary

Options:
a. a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1
b. a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4
c. a–3, b–2, c–1, d–4
d. a–2, b–1, c–4, d–3

—

2. The human skeleton is divided into which two main parts?

a. Upper and Lower limbs
b. Skull and Spine
c. Bones and Cartilage
d. Axial and Appendicular

—

3. Which of the following is a major complication following surgery?

a. Decreased lung expansion
b. Increased lung expansion
c. Atelectasis
d. Increased oxygen saturation levels

—

4. Which of the following factors do not affect the growth and development of a child?

a. Post-natal factors
b. Genetic factors
c. Pre-natal factors
d. Parent occupational factors

—

5. Which of the following is not part of immediate newborn care?

a. Vaccination
b. Maintenance of temperature
c. Establishment of an open airway
d. Initiation of breathing

—

6. Cholinergic neurons release ______ and adrenergic neurons release ______ respectively.

a. Acetylcholine, Norepinephrine
b. Norepinephrine, Acetylcholine
c. Cholecystokinin, Dopamine
d. Acetylcholine, Serotonin

—

7. What is Cardiac arrhythmia?

a. The normal heart rhythm
b. A condition where the heart rate remains constant
c. Any disorder of heart rate or rhythm due to abnormal generation or conduction of impulse
d. A condition where the heart stops beating

—

8. The epidemiological triad includes:

a. Man – Animal – Environment
b. Disease – Man – Agent
c. Environment – Host – Agent
d. Environment – Disease – Host

—

9. What is the term for the watery fluid that surrounds organelles within a cell?

a. Golgi apparatus
b. Plasma membrane
c. Cytoskeleton
d. Cytosol

—

10. Specific functions of the Directorate General of Health Services include:

1. International Health Relation and Quarantine
2. Control of Medical Store Depots
3. National Health Programme
4. Medical Research
Options:
a. 1, 2, 3, and 4
b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 3

—

11. Assertion–Reason Question:

Assertion (A): Nursing is considered as a profession.
Reason (R): Nursing services are provided to society by applying scientific knowledge and skills.

a. (a) is false, but (R) is true.
b. Both (a) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
c. (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
d. (a) is true, but (R) is false.

—

12. Match Column I, route of drug administration, with their related information in Column II:

Column A	Column B
a. General administration	1. Financial, Material
b. Supportive services	2. Laboratories, Pharmacy
c. Medical and Nursing services	3. Emergency, Operation Theatres
d. Utility services	Housekeeping, Dietary

Options:
a. 1–a, 2–b, 3-c, 4-d
b. 1–d, 2–c, 3-b, 4-a
c. 2–a, 1–b, 3-c, 4-a
d. 2–b, 1–a, 3-b, 4-d

—

13. What is the correct sequence of cycles of chain of infection?

a. Mode of transmission → Portal of entry → Susceptible host → Infectious agent → Reservoir → Portal of exit
b. Infectious agent → Reservoir → Portal of exit → Mode of transmission → Portal of entry → Susceptible host
c. Reservoir → Portal of exit → Mode of transmission → Portal of entry → Susceptible host → Infectious agent
d. Portal of exit → Mode of transmission → Portal of entry → Susceptible host → Infectious agent → Reservoir

—

14. Match the following classification of hospitals with correct details:

Column I (Hospital Types)	Column II (Details)
1. General Hospitals	a. Treatment for all illness
2. Public Hospitals	b. Treatment for specific illness
3. Corporate Hospitals	c. Run by Central or State government
4. Speciality Hospitals	d. Run as commercial firms established under Companies Act

Options:
a. 1–c, 2–b, 3–a, 4–d
b. 1–a, 2–d, 3–b, 4–c
c. 1–a, 2–c, 3–d, 4–b
d. 1–b, 2–a, 3–c, 4–d

—
15. Assertion–Reason Question:

Assertion (A): Speciality hospitals provide advanced care for specific diseases or patient groups.
Reason (R): Speciality hospitals are designed to cater to a wide range of specific medical services.

a. (a) is false, but (R) is true.
b. Both (a) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
c. Both (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
d. (a) is true, but (R) is false.

—

16. What is the full form of JSY?

a. Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram
b. Jai Samman Suraksha Karyakram
c. Janani Shishu Suraksha Kalyan
d. Janani Shishu Suraksha Yojana

—

17. What is the full form of RNTCP?

a. Revised National Treatment Control Programme
b. Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme
c. Random National Tuberculosis Control Programme
d. Revised New Tuberculosis Control Programme

—

18. What is the causative agent of Tuberculosis (TB)?

a. Streptococcus
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Salmonella typhi
d. Vibrio cholerae

—

19. Assertion–Reason Question:

Assertion (A): Red blood cells have no nucleus.
Reason (R): Red blood cells are biconcave in shape, which maximizes surface area for gas exchange and hemoglobin accommodation.

a. (a) is false, but (R) is true.
b. Both (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. Both (a) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
d. (a) is true, but (R) is false.

—

20. Largest carpal bone is:

a. Pisiform
b. Scaphoid
c. Lunate
d. Capitate

—

21. What is the correct sequence of steps of the teaching–learning process?

a. Conviction → Action → Satisfaction → Attention → Interest → Desire
b. Attention → Interest → Desire → Conviction → Action → Satisfaction
c. Interest → Desire → Conviction → Action → Satisfaction → Attention
d. Desire → Conviction → Action → Satisfaction → Attention → Interest

22. Which of the following is a rich source of carbohydrates?
a. Cheese
b. Eggs
c. Rice
d. Fish

23. The Expanded Programme on Immunization was launched in India in which year?
a. 1992
b. 1974
c. 1978
d. 1985

24. National Wealth Programme launched by —
a. International Organizations
b. Central Government
c. State Government
d. District Agencies

25. What are the most common congenital defects?
a. Kidney disorders and vision problems
b. Digestive system disorders and muscle weakness
c. Respiratory disorders and skin diseases
d. Congenital heart diseases and Central Nervous System (CNS) malformations

26. The word Epidemiology is derived from —
a. British
b. Latin
c. Greek
d. French

27. The site of fertilization in the female reproductive system is —
a. Vagina
b. Uterus
c. Fallopian tube
d. Cervix

28. Perinatal period, as defined by ICD, last from —
a. 1st day of birth to 28th day of birth
b. 12th week gestation to 27th week gestation
c. 28th week gestation to the 7th day after birth
d. 10th day of gestation to 10th day of birth

29. Mental health is best described as —
a. Absence of mental problems
b. Ability to face normal stresses of life
c. Good adjustment in the environment
d. Stable emotional balance

RSMSSB Staff Nurse Question Paper with Answers 2025

30. What are the basic processes of the digestive system in the correct order?
a. Ingestion → Secretion → Mixing and Propulsion → Digestion → Absorption → Defecation
b. Absorption → Ingestion → Digestion → Mixing and Propulsion → Defecation → Secretion
c. Ingestion → Absorption → Defecation → Digestion → Secretion → Mixing and Propulsion
d. Digestion → Ingestion → Secretion → Absorption → Defecation → Mixing and Propulsion

31. Which of the following principles of teaching emphasizes the importance of creating a positive learning environment?
a. Principle of learning by doing
b. Principle of clarity
c. Principle of interest
d. Principle of motivation

32. Which of the following is not true regarding diet during lactation?
a. Vitamin A requirement during lactation is higher than during pregnancy.
b. Energy requirement during lactation is higher than during pregnancy.
c. Iron requirement during lactation is higher than during pregnancy.
d. Vitamin C requirement during lactation is higher than during pregnancy.

33. Which of the following is not a function of the thalamus?
a. Regulating body temperature
b. Relaying information from the cerebellum and basal ganglia to primary motor areas of the cerebral cortex
c. Helping maintain consciousness
d. Playing a role in emotion and memory

34. Assertion (A): Auscultate both sides of the chest to determine changes in breath sounds.
Reason (R): Indications for tracheal suctioning are determined by chest auscultation.
a. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.

35. The waves of contractions that occur regularly in the intestine are known as —
a. Mixing contractions, Tonic contractions
b. Joint migrating contractions, Segmentation
c. Segmentation contractions, Intestinal peristalsis
d. Segmentation contractions, Intestinal peristalsis

36. Mark the incorrect potential post-operative complications of their respective body system.
a. Neurologic – Weakness, Fatigue, Breakdown
b. Respiration system – Atelectasis, Pulmonary embolism
c. Carbulatory – Deep vein thrombosis, Pulmonary embolism
d. Cardiovascular – Stroke, Thrombophlebitis

37. Which of the following is a characteristic of mental illness? (Choose the most appropriate option from below.)
a. Improved productivity
b. Stable emotional responses
c. Person’s behaviour is causing distress to self and others
d. Positive coping mechanism

38. What is the responsibility of the Biomedical Engineering department in a hospital?
a. Preparing and supplying diets for patients
b. Conducting invasive diagnostic tests
c. Maintaining and repairing medical instruments and machines
d. Administering emergency care to patients

39. Paranoid delusion is found in —
a. Catatonic Schizophrenia
b. Paranoid Schizophrenia
c. Hebephrenic Schizophrenia
d. Simple Schizophrenia

40. Match the following extracellular fluid within:

Column I	Column II
a. Blood vessels	1. Lymph
b. Lymphatic vessels	2. Synovial fluid
c. Joint	3. Blood plasma
d. Eyes	4. Aqueous humour

Choose the most appropriate option from below:
a. a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
b. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
c. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
d. a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3

41. A mild, benign, and transient mood change that begins within 4–5 days after delivery and lasts for a few days is known as —
a. Puerperal blues
b. Puerperal psychosis
c. Postpartum mania
d. Postpartum malaise

42. In the Indian diet, the total energy intake by carbohydrates is —
a. 85% to 90%
b. 10% to 15%
c. 25% to 35%
d. 50% to 80%

43. The law of unequal flexibility in the mechanism of labor states that —
a. Uterine contractions are uniform in intensity.
b. The fetal head molds to the maternal pelvis during labor.
c. The maternal pelvis adapts to the fetal head size.
d. The fetal head moves more easily in the direction of least resistance.

44. Newborn reflex in which a tap is gently applied over the forehead, and the eyes will blink is called —
a. Sucking reflex
b. Rooting reflex
c. Glabellar reflex
d. Grasp reflex

45. What is the correct ratio of chest compressions and rescue breaths when performing CPR on an adult?
a. 15 compressions: 4 breaths
b. 15 compressions: 2 breaths
c. 30 compressions: 2 breaths
d. 30 compressions: 4 breaths

46. Match the following with their examples:
Simple lipids → a. Triglycerides
Compound lipids → b. Cholesterol
Derived lipids → c. Phospholipids

Choose the most appropriate option from below:
a. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
b. 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
c. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
d. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c

47. A profession is defined as an occupation with ethical components that is devoted to the promotion of —
a. Political stability
b. Financial growth
c. Health and social welfare
d. Economic development

48. Which of the following is not a major sector of the health care delivery system in India?
a. Health planning sector
b. Public health sector
c. Indigenous systems of medicine
d. Voluntary health agencies

49. Which of the following is not a part of the uterus?
a. Cervix
b. Body or Corpus
c. Isthmus
d. Vagina

50. Which one is not a dopaminergic pathway?
a. Tuberoinfundibular pathway
b. Thalamocortical pathway
c. Nigrostriatal pathway
d. Mesolimbic pathway

Previous Year Rajasthan Staff Nurse Question Paper Solution

51. Pseudodementia is the symptom of which?
a. Mania
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Delirium
d. Depression

52. The essential requirement to be fulfilled by a First Referral Unit (FRU) is except:
a. Counselling services
b. Should have blood storage and transfusion facilities
c. Should provide emergency surgical and cesarean section
d. Should provide emergency newborn care

53. Nursing is called a profession because —
a. Provide a source of income
b. Apply scientific knowledge and skill to patient service
c. Apply practical teaching
d. Provide care to professionals

54. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
a. Vitamin B12
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D

55. The layer of the epidermis that contains stem cells undergoing mitosis is the —
a. Stratum Spinosum
b. Stratum Lucidum
c. Stratum Basale
d. Stratum Corneum

56. Match the phases of Mitosis in Column I with their corresponding characteristics in Column II:

Column I (Phases)	Column II (Characteristics)
1. Prophase	a. Chromatids align at the centre of the cell
2. Metaphase	b. Sister chromatids pulled to opposite poles
3. Anaphase	c. Nuclear envelope breaks down
4. Telophase	d. The chromosomes uncoil and the nuclear envelope reforms

Choose the most appropriate option from below:
a. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d
b. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
c. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c
d. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b

57. The following are the effects of anemia on the fetus except —
a. Postdated labor
b. Risk of intrauterine hypoxia
c. Prematurity
d. Low birth weight

58. The general goals for the initial assessment of the newborn are except — (Choose the most appropriate option from below)
a. Immunization
b. To detect significant medical problems so that they can be treated appropriately
c. To protect the newborn from harmful processes such as chilling or nosocomial infection
d. To promote good health by facilitating normal adaptation to extrauterine life

59. The Government of India launched the National Mental Health Programme in which year?
a. 2000
b. 1982
c. 1990
d. 2002

60. Which of the following is not included in the categories of female reproductive organs?
a. Ovaries
b. Testes
c. Fallopian tubes
d. Uterus

61. Ultrasonography is done for —
a. Screening for gestational diabetes
b. Assessing fetal well-being
c. Detecting congenital hip dislocation
d. Evaluating fetal lung maturity

62. Which is the correct sequence of hierarchy of hospital administration?
a. Staff Nurse → Chief Medical Officer → Nursing Superintendent → Ward Incharge
b. Chief Medical Officer → Nursing Superintendent → Ward Incharge → Staff Nurse
c. Nursing Superintendent → Ward Incharge → Staff Nurse → Chief Medical Officer
d. Ward Incharge → Staff Nurse → Chief Medical Officer → Nursing Superintendent

63. Which of the following is not muscular tissue?
a. Muscle fibre
b. Skeletal muscle
c. Cardiac muscle
d. Smooth muscle

64. Which of the following is not included in the objectives of MCH (Maternal and Child Health) services?
a. Promotion of physical and psychological development of the child within the family
b. Promotion of reproductive health
c. Early detection and treatment of congenital disorders
d. Reduction of morbidity and mortality rates for mothers and children

65. The only incorrect statement about ASHA is:
a. Should be a resident of the same village
b. Should be a trained midwife
c. Should be a female
d. Can provide first aid for minor ailments

66. ______ is the process of searching prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for the jobs in organization.
a. Training
b. Selection
c. Recruitment
d. Retaining

67. Match the following:

Facility Type	Population Coverage
1. Community Health Centre	a. 1 in 5,000 population
2. Primary Health Centre	b. 1 in 30,000 population
3. Sub Centre	c. 1 in 80,000 to 1,20,000 population

Choose the most appropriate option from below:
a. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
b. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
c. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
d. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a

68. What is the full form of UPHC in the health system?
a. Urban Primary Health Centre
b. Urban Principal Health Centre
c. Urban Primary Health Care
d. Upper Primary Health Centre

69. Generally, one ASHA is appointed for how much population?
a. 1000
b. 4000
c. 2000
d. 3000

70. General sense modalities refer to —
a. Stimuli and Equilibrium
b. Somatic senses and Visceral senses
c. Special senses and Somatic senses
d. Somatic senses and Vision senses

Previous Year Rajasthan Staff Nurse Question Paper Solution

71. Which Electronic Fetal Monitoring tracing pattern is concerning for fetal distress?
a. Normal sinusoidal pattern
b. Variable decelerations
c. Early decelerations
d. Late decelerations

72. Which of the following are not more common routes of parental administration of drugs?
a. Sublingual
b. Hypodermic
c. Intramuscular
d. Intravenous

73. ‘COPD’ respiratory disease in full form?
a. Classification of pulmonary disease
b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
c. Obstructural pneumonia disease
d. Chronic obstruction partial disease

a. Chronic renal disease
b. Cardiovascular disease
c. Epilepsy
d. Recurrent preeclampsia

75. Out of the following, which one is not an atypical antipsychotic drug?
a. Risperidone
b. Loxapine
c. Clozapine
d. Olanzapine

76. The launching year of RMNCH+A plus is –
a. Year 2008
b. Year 2013
c. Year 2012
d. Year 2010

77. Which of the following hormones plays a key role in regulating glucose metabolism?
a. Thyroxine
b. Insulin
c. Glucagon
d. Adrenaline

78. How many elements of primary health care?
a. 10
b. 6
c. 5
d. 8

79. Which of the following is not included in the five rights of drug administration?
a. Right environment
b. Right client
c. Right drug
d. Right dose

80. The causative organism for tuberculosis is –
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Mycobacteria
c. Chlamydia
d. E. Coli

81. Janani Suraksha Yojana is a –
a. Public Private Partnership Scheme
b. Centrally sponsored scheme
c. State Government-sponsored scheme
d. NGO sponsored scheme

82. How many lobes does the right lung have?
a. Four
b. Two
c. Three
d. One

83. Which of the following is not a criterion for normal labor?
a. Natural termination with minimal aids
b. Spontaneous in onset and at term
c. Vertex presentation
d. Prolonged labor requiring medical intervention

84. Which of the following is not a feature of Dumping syndrome?
a. Fever
b. Cramping
c. Diaphoresis
d. Dizziness

85. In which stage of cell division, the primary oocytes arrest until puberty?
a. Metaphase I of Mitosis I
b. Telophase II and Cytokinesis of Meiosis II
c. Metaphase I of Meiosis I
d. Prophase I of Meiosis I

86. Select muscle tissues that can be voluntarily controlled:
Cardiac
Smooth
Skeletal
Choose the most appropriate option from below:
a. 3 only
b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 2 only
d. 1 and 3

87. What is the most abundant type of blood cells in the human body?
a. Monocytes
b. Leukocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Platelets

88. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
a. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin K
d. Vitamin C

89. The intranatal causes for perinatal mortality include:
a. Congenital defect
b. Birth injuries
c. Asphyxia
d. Both Birth injuries and Asphyxia

90. How many basic needs of the patient were identified by Virginia Henderson?
a. 15
b. 14
c. 21
d. 11

91. Which of the following phases is not included in the reproductive or menstrual cycle?
a. Mammogenesis
b. Menstrual phase
c. Proliferative phase
d. Secretory phase

92. When a fertilized ovum is implanted and develops outside the normal endometrial cavity, it is called –
a. Multiple pregnancy
b. Tubal pregnancy
c. Ectopic pregnancy
d. Normal pregnancy

93. Match Column I of Muscles of breathing with Column II of their functions:

Column I	Column II
a. Diaphragm	1. Raise the ribcage upwards and outwards
b. External Intercostal Muscles	2. Main muscles for quiet, restful breath
c. Internal Intercostal Muscles	3. Used when extra respiratory effort is required
d. Accessory Muscles of Respiration	4. Used when expiration becomes active as exercise

Choose the most appropriate option from below:
a. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
b. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
c. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
d. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

94. Which of the following is an essential element of primary health care?
a. Promotion of expensive medications
b. Providing luxury healthcare services
c. Treatment of only chronic diseases
d. Immunization against major infectious diseases

95. Which of the following is a non-metal?
a. Nitrogen
b. Zinc
c. Aluminium
d. Iron

96. Which of the following diseases is caused by bacteria?
a. Cholera
b. Dengue
c. AIDS
d. Influenza

97. The Third National Health Policy was launched in which year in India?
a. 2017
b. 2000
c. 1983
d. 2002

98. The NRHM programme in India was primarily focused on –
a. Industrial sectors
b. Urban area
c. Rural area
d. Metropolis area

99. As per the RCH programme, the first referral unit is –
a. Community Health Centre
b. District Hospital
c. Primary Health Centre
d. Sub Centre

100. Arrange the following initiatives in chronological order of their launch:
a. SUMAN
b. JSSK
c. PMSMA
d. LAQSHYA
a. LAQSHYA → JSSK → PMSMA → SUMAN
b. JSSK → PMSMA → LAQSHYA → SUMAN
c. PMSMA → SUMAN → LAQSHYA → JSSK
d. SUMAN → JSSK → PMSMA → LAQSHYA

Rajasthan Government Staff Nurse Question Paper and Answer Key

101. Two submissions of NHM are ________ and ________.
a. CSSM, RCH
b. NRHM, NUHM
c. RCH-I, RCH-II
d. NHP, NRHM

102. Which organizations supported the RMNCH+A strategy?
a. WHO and IMF
b. UNICEF and UNFPA
c. UNESCO and WHO
d. ICMR and WHO

103. Which committee is known as “Committee on Integration of Health Services”?
a. Bhore Committee
b. Kartar Singh Committee
c. Jungalwalla Committee
d. Mukherji Committee

104. Which one is the injection in the DOTS programme?
a. Ethambutol
b. Streptomycin
c. Rifampicin
d. Isoniazid

105. When was “Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram” launched by Govt. of India?
a. 7th January 2014
b. 7th January 2013
c. 7th January 2012
d. 7th January 2011

106. When did the Government of India launch JSSK?
a. 1st June 2013
b. 1st June 2010
c. 1st June 2011
d. 1st June 2012

107. Match Column I Instructional methods with Column II Domain as per below:

Column I (Method)	Column II (Domain)
1. Lecture	a. Affective cognitive
2. Group discussion	b. Cognitive
3. Demonstration	c. Cognitive psychomotor
4. Simulation	d. Psychomotor cognitive

Choose the most appropriate option from below:
a. 1-a, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
b. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
c. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
d. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

108. Which organization has successfully conducted a high-altitude trial of LISS for LCA Tejas?
a. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
b. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
c. Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO)
d. Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL)

109. Bandh Baretha is located in the district of –
a. Bharatpur
b. Baran
c. Kota
d. Bikaner

110. Which of the following states is not covered under the tribal areas mentioned in the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
a. Assam
b. Meghalaya
c. Manipur
d. Tripura

111. The question subject to disqualification of the Speaker of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly on the ground of defection shall be referred to whom for the final decision?
a. Such member of the House as the House may elect in this behalf
b. Governor
c. Election Commission of India
d. Deputy Speaker

112. Who led the revolt in Lucknow in 1857?
a. Begam Hazrat Mahal
b. Shahmal
c. Bahadurshah
d. Nana Saheb

113. Under whose chairmanship did Gandhiji establish the ‘All India Harijan Seva Sangh’ in 1932 A.D.?
a. Harbilas Sharda
b. Ghanshyam Das Birla
c. Damodar Das Rathi
d. Jainarayan Vyas

114. Which of the following statements is not correct about the Second Five-Year Plan of India?
a. This plan was for the industrialisation of India.
b. This plan was implemented in 1956–61.
c. The plan was developed by Mahalanobis.
d. The plan was agriculture-based.

115. Which of the following is providing assistance to run Atal Bhujal Scheme in Rajasthan?
a. World Bank
b. Asian Development Bank
c. IMF
d. Niti Aayog

Please Subscribe Our YouTube channel – The Nurse

Like our Facebook Page: The Nurse

Please subscribe to get all our posts in your mail inbox

MSN Questions and Answers 2024

Best Community health Nursing MCQs 2025/a>

Essential Communication Needs in Nursing 2024 & Barriers of Communication